A person set aside some money with the intention of giving Zakat. Then he gave it to a person who was eligible to receive Zakat, saying that it was a loan. Now the question is: if Zakat is given to someone while calling it a loan, will the Zakat be considered fulfilled or not? If it is considered fulfilled, then another question arises: the meaning of Zakat is to transfer ownership to the poor person, whereas by giving a loan, full ownership is not established in every respect. Kindly provide a satisfactory answer to this question and oblige.”
“It is clear that if the person paying Zakat forms the intention of Zakat from the very beginning, but gives that amount to a Zakat-eligible person under the name of a loan, then even in this situation the Zakat is considered to be paid. This is because, for the payment of Zakat, the transfer of ownership of the wealth—regardless of the title under which it is given—is sufficient according to the explicit statements of the jurists. However, prior intention of Zakat is necessary. Therefore, in the case mentioned, when the person gave the money to a poor person who was eligible to receive Zakat with the intention of Zakat, then even though he gave it under the label of a loan, his Zakat is still legally considered to have been fulfilled.”
کما فی الھندیۃ: ومن أعطی مسکینا دراھم وسماھا ھبۃ أو قرضاً ونوی الزکاۃ فإنھا تجزیہ وھو الأصح ھکذا فی البحر الرائق ناقلا عن المبتغی والقنیۃ الخ (کتاب الزکاۃ، ج1، ص189،ط:دارالکتب العلمیۃ)۔
وفی مجمع الأنھر: ولا یشترط علم الفقیر بأبھا زکاۃ علی الاصح لما فی البحر عن القنیۃ والمجتنی الاصح أن من أعطی مسکینا دراھم وسماھا ھبۃ او قرضا ونوی الزکاۃ فإبھا تجزیہ لأن العبرۃ لنیۃ الدافع لالعلم المدفوع بہ الخ (کتاب الزکاۃ، ج1، ص196، ط:داراحیاء التراث العربی)۔
Is Zakat due on gold that has been pawned in a bank to take a loan?
English 30 Zakat and Syllabus of Zakat