Fatwa No : 84848
The Ruling on Signing a Divorce Deed Without Reading It

The Ruling on Signing a Divorce Deed Without Reading It

What do the respected Muftis say regarding this issue: About a year ago, my wife and I had a quarrel, during which I gave her one divorce (talaq), after which I made rujuʿ (reconciliation). Then, about a month ago, I gave her another divorce. Later, our quarrels intensified to the extent that the matter reached the police station. On the advice of a lawyer, we had a divorce deed prepared, and on his instruction, I signed the divorce deed without reading it. Now my question is: does divorce take effect in this manner or not? And is there still a possibility of rujuʿ (reconciliation) or not?
Note: The wife of the questioner has stated that “they want to live together again,” and this statement is attached with the question. As for the divorce deed, it was sent via TCS courier, but the girl’s father returned it from the door, so it never reached my wife. Moreover, I had already made rujuʿ (reconciliation) after the second divorce as well. Note: In clarification, the questioner has explained that although he signed the divorce deed without reading it, he did know that it was indeed a divorce deed.

الجوابُ حامِدا ًو مُصلیِّا ً

When the questioner had made rujuʿ (reconciliation) after the first and second divorces, it was permissible and valid for both of them to live together as husband and wife. However, for the future, the questioner had only one divorce left in his authority. But afterwards, when the questioner had the attached divorce deed prepared and signed it, the remaining one divorce also took effect, and through a total of three divorces, an irrevocable separation (hurmat mughallazah) has been established (even though the questioner signed the divorce deed without reading it). Now rujuʿ is no longer possible, and they cannot remarry each other without halalah sharʿiyyah. After completing her waiting period (ʿiddah), the woman is free to marry whomever she wishes.

مأخَذُ الفَتوی

كما في صحيح البخاري: حدثني محمد بن بشار، حدثنا يحيى، عن عبيد الله، قال: حدثني القاسم بن محمد، عن عائشة، أن رجلا طلق امرأته ثلاثا، فتزوجت فطلق، فسئل النبي صلى الله عليه وسلم: أتحل للأول؟ قال: «لا، حتى يذوق عسيلتها كما ذاق الأول» (7/ 43)۔
و في التاتارخانية: واما البدعى فنوعان (إلى قوله) فالذي يعود إلى العدد أن يطلقها ثلاثاً في طهر واحد بكلمة واحدة أو بكلمات متفرقة . (إلى قوله) و في الهداية فاذا فعل ذلك وقع الطلاق و كان عاصياً اھ (۳/ ۲۴۶)۔
و فى حاشية ابن عابدين (رد المحتار): (قوله كتب الطلاق إلخ) قال في الهندية: الكتابة على نوعين: مرسومة وغير مرسومة، ونعني بالمرسومة أن يكون مصدرا ومعنونا مثل ما يكتب إلى الغائب. (إلی قوله) وإن كانت مرسومة يقع الطلاق نوى أو لم ينو اھ (3/ 246)۔
و فيه أیضا: (قوله ثلاثة متفرقة) وكذا بكلمة واحدة بالأولى، (إلی قوله) وذهب جمهور الصحابة والتابعين ومن بعدهم من أئمة المسلمين إلى أنه يقع ثلاث. (3/ 233)۔
و في الهداية شرح البداية: وإن كان الطلاق ثلاثا في الحرة أو ثنتين في الأمة لم تحل له حتى تنكح زوجا غيره نكاحا صحيحا ويدخل بها ثم يطلقها أو يموت عنها والأصل فيه قوله تعالى { فإن طلقها فلا تحل له من بعد حتى تنكح زوجا غيره } فالمراد الطلقة الثالثة اھ (2/ 10) والله اعلم بالصواب