What do the esteemed scholars say regarding the following issue: During a domestic argument, I angrily said to my wife three times, "I divorce you", but my wife only heard it twice. I want to know: In this case, how many divorces have taken effect? What is the ruling regarding our relationship now if we want to reunite? Also, I pronounced these words over the phone. This incident occurred five months ago.
It should be clearly understood that for a divorce to be valid, it is not necessary for the wife to hear the words of divorce; rather, the mere utterance or written declaration of divorce by the husband is sufficient for it to take effect. Therefore, based on the questioner's statement, even though his wife only heard the words of divorce twice, since the husband verbally said “I divorce you” three times, all three divorces have taken effect, and a permanent and irrevocable divorce (talaq-e-mughallazah) has been established. As a result, reconciliation is no longer permissible, and without a valid halalah sharʿiyyah remarriage between the former spouses is not allowed. Hence, both individuals must immediately separate from one another and sincerely repent for the time they continued to live together after the divorce. Whereas the woman is also free to marry someone else of her choice after completing the ʿiddah (waiting period).
قال الله تعالى: {فَإِنْ طَلَّقَهَا فَلَا تَحِلُّ لَهُ مِنْ بَعْدُ حَتَّى تَنْكِحَ زَوْجًا غَيْرَهُ } [البقرة: 230]۔
وفى الدر المختار : (والطلاق يقع بعدد قرن به لا به) نفسه عن ذكر العدد، وعند عدمه الوقوع بالصيغة. (3/ 287)۔
و في حاشية ابن عابدين (رد المحتار): تحت (قوله والطلاق يقع بعدد قرن به لا به) أي متى قرن الطلاق بالعدد كان الوقوع بالعدد بدليل ما أجمعوا عليه من أنه لو قال لغير المدخول بها أنت طالق ثلاثا طلقت ثلاثا اھ (3/ 287)۔
وفيها أیضاً : تحت قوله ثلاثة متفرقة وكذا بكلمة واحدة بالأولى (إلى قوله ) وقد ثبت النقل عن أكثرهم صريحا بإيقاع الثلاث ولم يظهر لهم مخالف - {فماذا بعد الحق إلا الضلال} [يونس: 32]- (3/ 233) والله اعلم بالصواب