Assalamu Alaikum. My name is Muhammad Haris, and I am currently residing in the United Kingdom, while my wife is in Pakistan. Some time ago, I used to chat online with girls on Facebook. I have spoken to several girls. When introducing myself, sometimes I would say to a girl, “I am single,” and at other times, “I am divorced.” However, in my mind, I never truly thought that I was speaking about my wife, and I never mentioned her name to anyone. I never meant that I and my wife had separated. Please advise: Has a divorce actually occurred due to my statements? If so, has one divorce occurred, or three? I await your reply. May Allah reward you.
In the given scenario, the questioner’s statement, “I am divorced,” directed toward himself and not intended as a pronouncement of divorce toward his wife, does not result in any divorce upon his wife. Similarly, his statement, “I am single,” since it is not used in the sense of divorce, also does not cause any divorce.
As for the phrase “we are separated,” such expressions are considered figurative (kinayah), and their legal effect depends on the husband’s intention or the contextual meaning. Therefore, if in the mentioned scenario the questioner did not intend divorce when saying, “my wife and I are separated,” no divorce occurs according to Shariah. However, it is necessary for the questioner to avoid using such expressions in the future and to refrain from engaging in conversation with non-mahram women.
کما فی المجمع الأنھر: (ولو قال) لامرأته (أنا منك طالق فهو لغو) لا يعبأ به. (وإن) وصلية (نوى) به الطلاق؛ لأن الطلاق شرع مضافا إلى المرأة فإذا طلق الزوج نفسه فقد غير المشروع الخ۔ (فصل إضافة الطلاق إلى الزمان، باب إیقاع الطلاق، ج: 1، ص: 396، ط: دار الطباعۃ العامرۃ)۔
و فی الدر: وشرعا: (رفع قيد النكاح في الحال) بالبائن (أو المآل) بالرجعي (بلفظ مخصوص) هو ما اشتمل على الطلاق، فخرج الفسوخ كخيار عتق وبلوغ وردة، فإنه فسخ لا طلاق، (کتاب الطلاق، ج: 3، ص: 230، ط: سعید)۔
فتاوی دارالعلوم دیوبند میں ہے کہ : زید نے اپنی زوجہ کو نوٹس دیا کہ میں نے تجھے اپنی زووجیت سے علیحدہ کیا ہےاس صورت میں طلاق واقع ہوئی یا نہیں؟ اگر طلاق واقع ہوئی تو رجعت ہوسکتی ہے یا نہیں؟
الجواب اگر زید نے بہ نیت طلاق یہ الفاظ لکھے ہیں تو اس کی زوجہ پر طلاق بائن واقع ہوگئی ، رجعت نہیں ہوسکتی ( ج: 9،ص: 387)